My main position is that homosexuality is a sin according to the Bible. If you want to disregard the Levitical prohibitions against homosexuality as part of the obsolete Levitical laws, that's fine, but you must be prepared to disregard the other biblical teachings.
In Romans 1:26-27 Paul is very specific, "For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompense of their error which was meet."
In 1 Corinthians 6:9, Paul wrote, "Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind." The Greek word from which the King James Bible gets the word "effeminate" is malakos, which literally means something soft to the touch, but is used as a negative metaphor to refer to a boy kept for homosexual relations with a man. The "abusers of themselves with mankind" are those men who engage in unnatural sexual relations with other men – homosexuals. That is also how the NASB, the NKJV, and the NIV translate that verse. Also in the New Testament is verse 7 from the book of Jude, defining exactly why Sodom and Gomorrah were punished – homosexuality. I'm willing to disregard the Levitical passages as part of the Levitical law, but that doesn't dismiss these New Testament references. This is in addition to the biblical teachings that sex is only between a man and woman who are married